Surgery videos & books

2022-05-31 06:53:08 60) A 48-year-old male truck driver presents for evaluation of bright red rectal bleeding with bowel movements. He also has the feeling that something protrudes through his anus while he strains to move his bowels but that it withdraws into the bowel when he relaxes. He has no abdominal pain, weight loss, or other symptoms. A colonoscopy reveals no polyps or tumors but does note internal hemorrhoids. Which of the following is the best initial treatment for him? Open / Comment

2022-05-26 19:14:01 A high index of suspicion is warranted for catheter sepsis in any patient who has had a central line for several days and suddenly spikes a high fever. The catheter site may have erythema, induration, tenderness, and purulent discharge extruding from the skin. Often, however, the skin appears normal. Athorough search for other possible sources of fever including pulmonary, intra-abdominal, urinary, and wound infections is always prudent. Catheter sepsis can be life threatening and early intervention is essential. Peripheral and central blood cultures should be obtained and the catheter must be removed promptly. It is contraindicated to replace the catheter over a guide wire because the skin tract is infected. It is not mandatory to treat with antibiotics unless the fever persists or signs of sepsis are present. Open / Comment

2022-05-25 19:13:07 59) A 62-year-old male on total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for 2 weeks following development of a postoperative enterocutaneous fistula has developed high, spiking temperatures up to 102.2°F over the last 8 hours. The only abnormal finding on physical examination… Open / Comment

2022-05-25 19:12:11 59) A 62-year-old male on total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for 2 weeks following development of a postoperative enterocutaneous fistula has developed high, spiking temperatures up to 102.2°F over the last 8 hours. The only abnormal finding on physical examination is erythema and induration around his central line. The most appropriate management is which of the following?
(A) begin broad-spectrum antibiotics and observe for 24 hours
(B) obtain blood cultures through the central line, begin broad-spectrum antibiotics and await culture results
(C) remove catheter, send tip for culture and replace with a new central line over the guide wire
(D) remove catheter, send tip for culture and establish central line at another site
(E) remove catheter, send for culture and establish peripheral intravenous line Open / Comment

2022-05-21 11:18:44 #NEETPG2022 Posting
NEET PG 22 Recall questions & Discussion
join @doctorusmle Now Open / Comment

2022-05-20 11:08:01 Nearly all broad-spectrum antibiotics may result in superinfection of the colon with Clostridium difficile. This anaerobic enteric pathogen produces a toxin that causes necrosis of the colonic mucous membrane resulting in enterocolitis (pseudomembranous colitis). The infection can occur several weeks after the discontinuation of the inciting antibiotic. The presentation varies from mild diarrhea to systemic illness with abdominal pain, fever, and leukocytosis. Severe cases may progress to colonic dilatation and perforation. Lower endoscopy reveals the characteristic yellow pseudomembranes, which represent ulceration and necrosis. The diagnosis is confirmed with either colonic wall biopsy for the organism, or more commonly with identification of the toxin in stool samples. Orally administered metronidazole is the treatment of choice. Oral vancomycin is also effective, but it is reserved for refractory cases due to its side effect profile and expense. Open / Comment

2022-05-19 11:07:05 58) A 50-year-old diabetic man is treated as an outpatient with incision and drainage and oral clindamycin for an abscess and cellulitis of the skin on his back. About a week after completing his antibiotic he develops frequent, watery diarrhea. Which of the… Open / Comment

2022-05-19 11:06:01 58) A 50-year-old diabetic man is treated as an outpatient with incision and drainage and oral clindamycin for an abscess and cellulitis of the skin on his back. About a week after completing his antibiotic he develops frequent, watery diarrhea. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment of this complication? Open / Comment

2022-05-16 17:59:01 • The clinical diagnosis based on history of rib fractures, respiratory distress and hypotension is pneumothorax. There can be concomitant hemothorax but treatment of obstructive shock caused by pneumothorax is the immediate step • This would be done by inserting a wide bore needle in second intercostal space to reduce the impact of obstructive shock and increase systolic blood pressure. Open / Comment

2022-05-16 09:39:30 Best offer on egurukul
Learning Festival offer
Exclusively with code
KUCH40

1yr advance pack
+
Free notes
+
3 months bonus
In ₹29,999 only


Price increasing after 12 pm tomorrow

Coupon- KUCH40
www.egurukulapp.com

Inbox @murtazakuchay for any queries Open / Comment